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ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst Sample Questions (Q12-Q17):

NEW QUESTION # 12
Which ofthe following is .1 PRIMARY output from the development of a cyber risk management strategy?

A. Accepted processes are Identified.
B. Mitigation activities are defined.
C. Compliance implementation is optimized.
D. Business goals are communicated.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Theprimary output from the development of a cyber risk management strategyis thedefinition of mitigation activitiesbecause:
* Risk Identification:After assessing risks, the strategy outlines specific actions to mitigate identified threats.
* Actionable Plans:Clearly defineshow to reduce risk exposure, including implementing controls, patching vulnerabilities, or conducting training.
* Strategic Guidance:Aligns mitigation efforts with organizational goals and risk tolerance.
* Continuous Improvement:Provides a structured approach to regularly update and enhance mitigation practices.
Other options analysis:
* A. Accepted processes are identified:Important, but the primary focus is on defining how to mitigate risks.
* B. Business goals are communicated:The strategy should align with goals, but the key output is actionable mitigation.
* C. Compliance implementation is optimized:Compliance is a factor but not the main result of risk management strategy.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 5: Risk Management and Mitigation:Highlights the importance of defining mitigation measures.
* Chapter 9: Strategic Cyber Risk Planning:Discusses creating a roadmap for mitigation.

NEW QUESTION # 13
Which of the following MOST directly supports the cybersecurity objective of integrity?

A. Data backups
B. Least privilege
C. Encryption
D. Digital signatures

Answer: D

Explanation:
The cybersecurity objective ofintegrityensures that data isaccurate, complete, and unaltered. The most direct method to support integrity is the use ofdigital signaturesbecause:
* Tamper Detection:A digital signature provides a way to verify that data has not been altered after signing.
* Authentication and Integrity:Combines cryptographic hashing and public key encryption to validate both the origin and the integrity of data.
* Non-Repudiation:Ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the message.
* Use Case:Digital signatures are commonly used in secure email, software distribution, and document verification.
Other options analysis:
* A. Data backups:Primarily supports availability, not integrity.
* C. Least privilege:Supports confidentiality by limiting access.
* D. Encryption:Primarily supports confidentiality by protecting data from unauthorized access.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 5: Data Integrity Mechanisms:Discusses the role of digital signatures in preserving data integrity.
* Chapter 8: Cryptographic Techniques:Explains how signatures authenticate data.

NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following should occur FIRST during the vulnerability identification phase?

A. Run vulnerability scans of all in-scope assets.
B. Inform relevant stakeholders that vulnerability scanning will be taking place.
C. Assess the risks associated with the vulnerabilities Identified.
D. Determine the categories of vulnerabilities possible for the type of asset being tested.

Answer: B

Explanation:
During thevulnerability identification phase, thefirst stepis toinform relevant stakeholdersabout the upcoming scanning activities:
* Minimizing Disruptions:Prevents stakeholders from mistaking scanning activities for an attack.
* Change Management:Ensures that scanning aligns with operational schedules to minimize downtime.
* Stakeholder Awareness:Helps IT and security teams prepare for the scanning process and manage alerts.
* Authorization:Confirms that all involved parties are aware and have approved the scanning.
Incorrect Options:
* B. Run vulnerability scans:Should only be done after proper notification.
* C. Determine vulnerability categories:Done as part of planning, not the initial step.
* D. Assess risks of identified vulnerabilities:Occurs after the scan results are obtained.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 6, Section "Vulnerability Management," Subsection "Preparation and Communication" - Informing stakeholders ensures transparency and coordination.

NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a poorly enforced bring your own device (8YOD) policy?

A. Weak passwords
B. Shadow IT
C. Unapproved social media posts
D. Network congestion

Answer: B

Explanation:
A poorly enforcedBring Your Own Device (BYOD)policy can lead to the rise ofShadow IT, where employees use unauthorized devices, software, or cloud services without IT department approval. This often occurs because:
* Lack of Policy Clarity:Employees may not be aware of which devices or applications are approved.
* Absence of Monitoring:If the organization does not track personal device usage, employees may introduce unvetted apps or tools.
* Security Gaps:Personal devices may not meet corporate security standards, leading to data leaks and vulnerabilities.
* Data Governance Issues:IT departments lose control over data accessed or stored on unauthorized devices, increasing the risk of data loss or exposure.
Other options analysis:
* A. Weak passwords:While BYOD policies might influence password practices, weak passwords are not directly caused by poor BYOD enforcement.
* B. Network congestion:Increased device usage might cause congestion, but this is more of a performance issue than a security risk.
* D. Unapproved social media posts:While possible, this issue is less directly related to poor BYOD policy enforcement.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 3: Asset and Device Management:Discusses risks associated with poorly managed BYOD policies.
* Chapter 7: Threat Monitoring and Detection:Highlights how Shadow IT can hinder threat detection.

NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following has been established when a business continuity manager explains that a critical system can be unavailable up to 4 hours before operation is significantly impaired?

A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Maximum tolerable downtime (MID)
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Service level agreement (SLA)

Answer: A

Explanation:
TheRecovery Time Objective (RTO)is themaximum acceptable timethat a system can be down before significantly impacting business operations.
* Context:If thecritical system can be unavailable for up to 4 hours, the RTO is4 hours.
* Objective:To define how quickly systems must be restored after a disruption tominimize operational impact.
* Disaster Recovery Planning:RTO helps design recovery strategies and prioritize resources.
Other options analysis:
* A. Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD):Represents the absolute maximum time without operation, not the target recovery time.
* B. Service level agreement (SLA):Defines service expectations but not recovery timelines.
* C. Recovery point objective (RPO):Defines data loss tolerance, not downtime tolerance.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 5: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery:Explains RTO and its role in recovery planning.
* Chapter 7: Recovery Strategy Planning:Highlights RTO as a key metric.

NEW QUESTION # 17
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